22 Questions in Prelims 2018 From Our Prelims Test Series

UPSC CSE Prelims 2018 was true to UPSC’s nature ,unpredictable with numerous vague question.Even the simple polity questions were not that simple in the examination hall.From the current affairs section, UPSC again made it clear that it is not limited to one year.Questions such as IRNSS,Equalization levy have been in news since the past two years.We have been pointing out this fact regarding the currect affairs and that is why we provided coverage of two years of current affairs.
When even one question can bring you in the list of Prelims qualified,we are happy to say this that 22 questions in UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2018 came from our testseries.The details have been provided in the post below.
We have also launched 2019 test series with more number of quality tests without increasing the price to reach more and more people.The testseries covers 
1.Two years of current affairs,
2.Vision IAS magazine based tests.
3.Standard reference books tests
4.All NCERTs (both class wise tests and subject wise tests)
5.Full Length Mock tests
6.Previous year based tests
7.Economic Survey,Budget and India Yearbook tests
Practice gives you an edge and prepare you to deal with difficult questions in the actual exam.UPSC 
will be always unpredictable and your success depends on how much you are prepapred for this unpredictability.
Want to Attempt Prelims 2019, Start Early Here :  http://imojo.in/OnlineTestSeries2019
Repeated Questions in 2018 Prelims from our Testseries
2018
1. With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements :
1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2. IRNSS covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its borders.
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None


Economic Survey +IYB Test 4


The NAVIC system will consist of a constellation of
NAVIC Select one:
a. 3 satellites in Geostationary orbit (GEO)


b. 4 satellites in Geosynchronous orbit (GSO)


c. Both


d. None


Explanation
The NAVIC system will consist of a constellation of 3 satellites in Geostationary orbit (GEO), 4 satellites in Geosynchronous orbit (GSO), approximately 36,000 kilometres (22,000 mi) altitude above earth’s surface, and two satellites on the ground as stand-by, in addition to ground stations. The system was developed because access to foreign government-controlled global navigation satellite systems is not guaranteed in hostile situations, as happened to the Indian military in 1999 when it was dependent on the American Global Positioning System (GPS) during the Kargil War.
NAVIC FOR SOUTH ASIAN DIPLOMACY Why in news?  NAVIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation), India’s indigenous global navigation satellite system, is expected to become fully operational from August.  With this, India will join a club of global powers—the US, EU, China and Russia—who control their own navigation satellite systems NAVIC for South Asian Diplomacy Its full operationalization carries implications and opportunities for the South Asian region at large in the following ways:  Sharing the benefits of NAVIC could promote India’s credentials as a collaborative partner in the region. Having a global navigation system bolsters the ability of a nation to serve as a “net security provider”. Net security providers are states that deploy their surplus national assets for the safety and stability of other countries, including by way of responding to natural and man-made disasters.  The USA’s GPS played a significant role in relief efforts post tsunami in 2004 and the Pakistan-India earthquake in 2005, and has delivered significant strategic and economic benefits to the US. NAVIC also arrives as an instrument for environmental and meteorological monitoring, as well as climate research. Thus helping in more accurate prediction and efficient response to disasters like Nepal earthquake 2015.  NAVIC should propel technological innovations and spin-offs that render South Asia progressively less reliant on technological imports from the West and elsewhere. It might even go some way to mend relations with Pakistan. Building on India’s offering of assistance to Pakistan during the floods in Pakistan-occupied Kashmir and other areas in 2014, NAVIC could establish a tradition of regional monitoring whereby India leverages its technological edge to safeguard citizens across the subcontinent. Such gestures could blunt the adversarial nature of Indo-Pakistan relations in the long run. Way forward In dedicating itself to exploring and actualizing the civilian and commercial potential of NAVIC, India can signal to its regional partners that its rise is not only passively peaceful but also directly beneficial to those it can lift up in its tide.

2018
2  With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements :
1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
 
(a)1 and 3 only
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 3 only
(d)1, 2 and 3
Answer. b


Full Length Test 4
GM crops were in news recently.Consider the following
1.Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body for the
approval of commercial cultivation of GM crops.
2. GEAC has given approval for commercial cultivation of GM mustard.
3.GM mustard can survive high amounts of herbicides and hence will not require
weeding
Choose the correct statement/s


Explanation
What is Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)?
It is established under Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
It is the apex body for approval of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recom­binants
It is also responsible for ap­proval of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered organisms and products including experimen­tal field trials
A team of scientists at Delhi University led by former vice-chancellor Deepak Pental has bred DMH-11, a genetically modified (GM) mustard hybrid. Hybrids are normally obtained by crossing two genetically diverse plants from the same species.The first-generation offspring resulting from it has higher yields than what either of the parents is individually capable of giving But there is no natural hybridisation system in mustard, unlike in, say, cotton, maize or tomato What team has done is, that they have created a viable hybridisation system in mustard using GM technology The resulting GM mustard hybrid, it is claimed, gives 25-30% more yield than the best varieties such as ‘Varuna’ currently grown in the country
Why opposed?
GMOs contaminate forever. GMOs cross pollinate and their seeds can travel far and wide
It is impossible to fully clean up our contaminated gene pool
Genetic engineering allows plants to survive high doses of weed killers, resulting in higher herbicide residues in our food
GMO crops are creating ‘super weeds’ and ‘super bugs,’ which can only be killed with more toxic poisons
2018
4. Consider the following pairs :
Terms sometimes seen in news                  Context /Topic
1. Belle II experiment                           –   Artificial Intelligence
2. Blockchain technology                     – Digital/Cryptocurrency
3. CRISPR — Cas9                               –   Particle Physics
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer. b


Current Affairs Bimonthly Test 4 (1 6th-31 st July)


CRISPR – Cas9 in news recently is a
Select one:
a. name of gene
b. Palindromic DNA stretch
c. Genome editing technique
d. Genetic disease


CRISPR
  • For the first time, scientists in the US have successfully used gene-editing tools on human embryos to correct defective DNA that cause inherited diseases.
  • The effort involved changing the DNA of a large number of one-cell embryos with gene-editing technique CRISPR.
  • CRISPR stands for Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats.
  • CRISPR – Cas9 is a most prominent genome editing technique by targeting specific stretches of genetic code to edit DNA at precise locations.
  • The technique allows researchers to permanently modify genes in living cells and organisms and to correct mutations at precise locations in the human genome to treat genetic causes of disease.
  • It can be used to target multiple genes simultaneously and can also activate gene expression instead of cutting the DNA.


UPSC 2018 Foundation Test Series ► Current Affairs Bimonthly Tests [2017-2018] ►
General ► Current Affairs Bimonthly Test 14 (15th-31st Decem


Blockchain technology was recently in news.It can be used in


1.Distributed data storage – िवतरत डेटा संहण
2.Securing digital Identities – िडिजटल पहचान सुरित करना
3.Digital voting – िडिजटल वोिटंग
2018


Consider the following statements :
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer.b


Reference Books Based Test 8


What is the minimum percentage of the strength of opposition required in a State legislature for the appointment of an opposition leader ?
राज्य विधायिका में एक विपक्षी नेता की नियुक्ति के लिए विपक्ष की ताकत का आवश्यक न्यूनतम प्रतिशत क्या है?
Select one:
a. 20%
b.  25%
c.  40%
d. None


Ans d
  • To become leader of opposition, a political party needs at least 10% strength of the house.


2018
How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are  correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Vision IAS CA Based Mock Test December 2016


Consider the following regardig National Green Tribunal     


राष्ट्रीय ग्रीन ट्रिब्यूनल के बारे में निम्नलिखित पर विचार करें-


1.The Tribunal is mandated to dispose any appeal finally within six months.


ट्रिब्यूनल के लिये किसी भी अपील को अंततः छह महीने के भीतर निपटाना अनिवार्य है.


2.Tribunals takes decision on the basis of Principles of Natural Justice.


प्राकृतिक न्याय के सिद्धांतों के आधार पर ट्रिब्यूनल्स निर्णय लेते हैं.


Choose the correct statement/s  – सही वक्तव्य चुनें-


Select one:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. None of the above
Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.
It has been established in 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010.
It has been established for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection
and conservation of forests and other natural resources.
It also includes enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation
for damages to persons and property and for matters connected therewith.
It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes involving
multi-disciplinary issues.
The Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, and is
guided by principles of natural justice.
The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6
months of filing of the same.
New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai shall be
the other four place of sitting of the Tribunal.
It adjudicates matters relating to following Acts-
Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
Forest Conservation Act
Biological Diversity Act


Vision IAS CA Based Mock Test March 2018


Choose the correct statement/s  – सही कथन चुनें-


1.Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is a statutory organisation


केन्द्रीय प्रदूषण नियंत्रण बोर्ड (सीपीसीबी) एक वैधानिक संगठन है


2.It derives its power and function from Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.


यह वायु (रोकथाम और प्रदूषण नियंत्रण) अधिनियम, 1981 से अपनी शक्ति और कार्य प्राप्त करता है


Select one:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2 both
d. None
Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.   
Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)


• It is a statutory organisation which was constituted in 1974 and was


entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention


and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.


• Main functions of CPCB is to –


o Promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of


the States by prevention, control and abatement of water


pollution


o to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air


pollution in the country.


2018
4 Consider the following statements :
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on
it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Reference Books Based Test 2 (Explanations of the question clears the concept regarding laws in 9th Schedule)


39.Which of the following are correctly matched
1.Article 31 A ­ Saves the law made for the implementation of certain Directive Principles
2.Article 31B ­saves the acts and regulations included in the Ninth Schedule
3.Article 31C­ saves the law Providing for Acquisition of Estates
Select one:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 1,2,3


Article 31A16 saves five categories of laws from being challenged and invalidated
on the ground of
contravention of the fundamental rights conferred by Article 14 (equality before law
and equal
protection of laws) and Article 19 (protection of six rights in respect of speech,
assembly, movement,
etc.). They are related to agricultural land reforms, industry and commerce and
include the following:
(a) Acquisition of estates17 and related rights by the State;
(b) Taking over the management of properties by the State;
(c) Amalgamation of corporations;
(d) Extinguishment or modification of rights of directors or shareholders of
corporations; and
(e) Extinguishment or modification of mining leases.
Article 31A does not immunise a state law from judicial review unless it has been
reserved for the
president’s consideration and has received his assent.
Article 31B saves the acts and regulations included in the Ninth Schedule18 from
being challenged
and invalidated on the ground of contravention of any of the fundamental rights.
Thus, the scope of
Article 31B is wider than Article 31A. Article 31B immunises any law included in the
Ninth
Schedule from all the fundamental rights whether or not the law falls under any of
the five categories
specified in Article 31A.
Article 31C, as inserted by the 25th Amendment Act of 1971, contained the
following two provisions:
(a) No law that seeks to implement the socialistic directive principles specified in
Article
39(b)21 or (c)22 shall be void on the ground of contravention of the fundamental
rights
conferred by Article 14 (equality before law and equal protection of laws) or Article
19
(protection of six rights in respect of speech, assembly, movement, etc.)
(b) No law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be
questioned
in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such a policy.
In the Kesavananda Bharati case23 (1973), the Supreme Court declared the above
second provision
of Article 31C as unconstitutional and invalid on the ground that judicial review is a
basic feature of
the Constitution and hence, cannot be taken away. However, the above first
provision of Article 31C
was held to be constitutional and valid.


2018
With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2


Current Affairs Bimonthly Tests 2016-2017 ►
General ► Current Affairs Mock Test 14(16-31st January)


Google tax was in news recently.Consider the following regarding it


1.It is a tax on the income as accrue to a foreign e-commerce company outside of
India.


2.Also known as Equalization Levy,it does not allow tax credit to both foreign and
domestic firms
Choose the correct statement/s
Select one:
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. None


2018
Consider the following statements
1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to that of war of GDP of the State 2 Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for a State to take the Central Government’s consent for raising any loan if the former owes any outstanding liabilities to the latter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3


Vision IAS CA Based Mock Test February 2018


14.NK Singh (FRBM Review)Committee recommended
1. The combined debt-to-GDP ratio of the centre and states should be brought down
to 60% by 2023.
2.the centre should reduce its fiscal deficit from the current 3.5% (2017) to 0% by
2023.
Choose the correct statement/s
Select one:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2 both
d. None
2018
“Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following ?
(a) Amnesty International
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
(d) World Justice Project
Answer.d


Vision IAS CA Based Mock Test February 2018


Rule of Law Index 2018 has recently been published by
Select one:
a. UN
b. OECD
c. Britain
d. World Justice Project


2018
The terms ‘Wanna Cry, Petya and Eternal Blue’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to
(a) Exo-planets
(b) Crypto-currency
(c) Cyber attacks
(d) Mini satellites
Answer.c


Current Affairs Bimonthly Test 2 (16th- 30th June)


2.NotPetya’ was in news recently.Which of he following is/are correct
Select one:
a. a ransom ware that destroys the filesystem in the computer
b. The malware that masquerades as the Petya ransomware.
c. The country’s one of the largest ports JNPT has been hit by this ransomware.
d. All of the above
Your answer is incorrect.
If the WannaCry attacks were a signal of things to come, then the NotPetya
ransomware, which hit machines globally on Tuesday is the sequel that most cyber
experts were anticipating. According to experts, NotPetya cleverly uses legitimate
Windows processes PsExec and Windows Management Information Command-line
(WMIC), which is an interface that simplifies the use of Windows Management
Instrumentation (WMI).
But simply put, it is no different from WannaCry, and the end motive for the hackers is
to earn ransom money (in bitcoin). So, what else do we know about NotPetya? Who
has been hit by the ransomware attack, and how can they minimise the damage?
Here’s all you need to know.
1. How Bad is NotPetya?
NotPetya is known to use both the NSA’s exploit tool EternalBlue and the PsExec as
infection vectors and is detected as RANSOM_PETYA.SMA.
As noted by cyber security experts, NotPetya reboots the PC, presenting a faked
‘check disk’ screen, and showing the ransom message. The reboot and subsequent
messages are typical of previously observed ransomware Petya behaviour. (Yes, it’s
easy to confuse between the two ransomware programs.)
It has affected countries like Ukraine, Spain and is gradually spreading to countries
like India too, where brands like Mondelez, Genesis and one of the country’s largest
ports, JNPT, have reportedly been hit.
According to Kaspersky, the attack is said to have started when a software called
MeDoc was updated by government organisations in Ukraine. Which is why Ukraine
has been hit the worst with over 60 percent of PCs affected, followed by Russia with
30 percent affected Windows PCs.


2018
Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India ?
1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer.a


UPSC 2018 Foundation Test Series ► Reference Books Based Tests ► General ►
Reference Books Based Test 10


Reference Books Based Test 10


Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of the debate between
“Anglicists” and “Orientalists” in the 1830s
1. The Anglicists wanted to cut the money being spent on printing Sanskrit
and Arabic texts
2. The Anglicists wanted to cut the money spent on printing Sanskrit texts
and wished to
continue to print in Persian
3. The Orientalists wanted stipend for the students of Arabic and Sanskrit
4. The Orientalists started a new Sanskrit College in Delhi
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Select one:
a. 1 only
b. 1 3, and 4
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 , 3 and 4
ORIENTALIST-ANGLIC1ST CONTROVERSY Within the General Committee on Public
Instruction, the Anglicists argued that the government spending on
education should be exclusively for modern studies.
The. Orientalists said while western sciences and literature should be
taught to prepare students to take up jobs, emphasis should be placed on
expansion of traditional Indian learning.
Even the Anglicists were divided over the question of medium of
instruction—one faction was for English language as the medium, while
the other faction was for Indian languages (vernaculars) for the
purpose.
Unfortunately there was a great deal of confusion over English and
vernacular languages as media of instruction and as objects of study
The correct answer is:
1 and 3 only


q.38The foundation of modern educational system in India was laid by
. भारत में आधुनिक शिक्षा प्रणाली की नींव रखी गई थी-


Select one:
a. the Charter Act of 1813  – 1813 के चार्टर अधिनियम द्वारा…
b. Macaulay’s Minutes of 1835  – मैकॉले के 1835 के मिनट द्वारा…
c. The Hunter Commission of 1882  – 1882 के हंटर कमिशन द्वारा…
d. Wood’s Dispatch of 1854  – वुड के 1854 के डिस्पैच द्वारा…

Feedback

Lord Macaulay’s Minute (1835), This famous minute settled the row in favour of Anglicists—the limited government resources were to be devoted to teaching of western sciences and literature through the medium of English language alone. Lord Macaulay held the view that “Indian learning was inferior to European learning”—which was true as far as physical and social sciences in the contemporary stage were concerned.The Government soon made English as the medium of instruction in its schools and colleges and opened a few English schools and colleges instead of a large number of elementary schools, thus neglecting mass education. The British planned to educate a small section of upper and middle classes, thus creating a class”Indian in blood and colour but English in tastes, in opinions, in morals and in intellect” who would act as interpreters between the Government and masses and would enrich the vernaculars by which knowledge of western sciences and literature would reach the masses.This was called the ‘downward filtration theory’.


2018


Consider the following statements:
1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3


Full Mock test 1


Question 14


Barren Island was in news recently.It is located in


बारेन द्वीप हाल ही में खबर में था. यह………. में स्थित है-


Select one:
a. Laksdweep  – लक्षद्वीप
b. Andman and Nicobar  – अंडमान और निकोबार
c. Maldives  – मालदीव
d. Indonesia  – इंडोनेशिया


ANS B
According to scientists from Goa based National Institute of Oceanography (NIO), India’s only live volcano at Barren Island in the Andaman and Nicobar has become active again.


After lying dormant for 150 years, Barren Island volcano had erupted in 1991 and since then it is showing sporadic activity. Now it is erupting in small episodes of five to 10 minutes.


Key Facts


According to scientists, the active Barren island volcano is spewing smoke, ash and lava once again.


It is claimed that volcanoes is erupting the rising magma formed deep in the mantle due to the melting of the subducted Indian Ocean crust.


Scientists have sampled sediments and water and also have recovered coal-like black pyroclastic material of volcanic ejecta. These samples will help in deciphering nature of present and past volcanic activity in region.


The volcanic island is part of Andaman islands. Its northern part is barren and is uninhabited. It is also devoid of vegetation.


The correct answer is: Andman and Nicobar  – अंडमान और निकोबार


2018


11.With reference to educational institutes during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs :
           Institution                          Founder
1. Sanskrit College at Benaras –   William Jones
2. Calcutta Madarsa –             Warren Hastings
3. Fort William College –          Arthur Wellesley
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only


NCERT Based Test 4
Which of the following are correctly matched


1.Calcutta Madrasa – Warren Hastings


2. Benaras Sanskrit College – Jonathan Duncan


3.Asiatic Society –  Henry Thomas Colebrooke


इनमें से कौन सा सही ढंग से मिलान किया गया है-


1. कलकत्ता मदरसा ————–वॉरेन हेस्टिंग्स


2. बनारस संस्कृत कॉलेज ——–जोनाथन डंकन


3. एशियन सोसायटी ————-हेनरी थॉमस कोलब्रुक


एक चुनो:


Select one:
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1,2,3
Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.
For establishing their rule in India, the officers of the East India Company thought it necessary to preserve the knowledge of Hindus and Muslims. In the year 1750 they passed a resolution for that purpose. To preserve Urdu, they established a madrasa at Calcutta, whereas for protection and development of Sanskrit, they chose Benares. In 1791, during the period of British rule in India, Jonathan Duncan, the representative of the East India Company proposed the establishment of a Sanskrit college for development and preservation of the Sanskrit vangmaya [Sanskrit, “literature”] and to show that the English people were in favour of the development of the Indian culture. This was sanctioned by Governor General Lord Cornwallis. Kashi Naresh Mahip Narayan Singh donated a huge tract of land in the southern part of Benares for construction of the college. The first teacher of this Institution was Pandit Kashinath. The Governor General initially sanctioned a budget of Rs. 20,000 per annum.


Note: always supplement your knowledge with some internet research when something is mentioned in the NCERT but detail is not provided.


Reference Books Based Test 10


Which of the following are correctly matched
1.Calcutta Madrasah -Warren Hastings
2.The Sanskrit College – Jonathan Duncan,
3.Fort William College- Wellesley
Select one:
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1,2,3
2018
Consider the following pairs :
Regions sometimes mentioned in news   Country
1. Catalonia         –                             Spain
2. Crimea       –                                 Hungary
3. Mindanao –                                 Philippines
4. Oromia        –                                Nigeria
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b)) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Answer.c


Vision IAS CA Based Mock Test October 2017


1.Catalonia is in
Select one:
a. France
b. Spain
c. Portugal
d. None , Its an Autonomous region
2018
Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true ?
1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer. a


NCERT based Test 4
Consider the following


1. English Education Act of 1835 was introduced On the recommendation of T.B Macaulay


2.  Wood’s dispatch recommended the introduction of system of European learning.


Choose the correct statement/s


निम्नलिखित को ध्यान से देखें-


1. टी.बी. मैकाले की सिफारिश पर 1835 का अंग्रेजी शिक्षा अधिनियम शुरू किया गया था


2. वुड के प्रेषण ने यूरोपीय शिक्षण की प्रणाली की शुरूआत करने की सिफारिश की


सही वक्तव्य चुनें-


Select one:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2 both
d. None of the above
Feedback
Your answer is incorrect.
Macaulay emphasised the need to teach the English language. He felt that knowledge


of English would allow Indians to read some of the finest literature the world had produced;


it would make them aware of the developments in Western science and philosophy. Teaching of English could thus be a way of civilising people, changing their tastes, values and culture. Following Macaulay’s minute, the English Education Act of 1835 was introduced

In 1854, the Court of Directors of the East India Company in London sent an educational despatch to the Governor-General in India. Issued by Charles Wood,the President of the Board of Control of the Company, it has come to be known as Wood’s Despatch. Outlining the educational policy that was to be followed in India,it emphasised once again the practical benefits of a system of European learning, as opposed to Oriental knowledge.It recommended English as a medium of instruction for higher studies and vernacular at school level.


2018

With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the Ilouse whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conrerred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
Answer.b
FULL MOCK TEST 1
Q1.Consider the following   – निम्नलिखित को ध्यान से पढ़ें-
1.Committee on Subordinate Legislation works on the detailed framework of legislation.
अधीनस्थ विधान पर समिति कानून की विस्तृत रूपरेखा पर काम करती है
2.Committee on Petitions examines petitions on bills and on matters of general public importance.  
याचिकाओं पर समिति बिलों और सामान्य सार्वजनिक महत्व के मामलों पर याचिकाओं की जांच करती है
Choose the correct statement/s  – सही वक्तव्य चुनें-
Explanation.
Committee on Subordinate Legislation This committee examines and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules,sub-rules and bye-laws delegated by the Parliament or conferred by the Constitution to the Executive are being properly exercised by it. In both the Houses, the committee consists of 15 members. It was constituted in 1953  .

2018

77. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part. III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
Answer.c
UPSC 2018 Foundation Test Series ►VisionIAS Monthly Current Affair Based Mock Tests ► General ►Vision IAS CA Based Mock Test August 2017
Right to Privacy is a  – गोपनीयता का अधिकार एक……………………….. हैः
Select one:
a. Fundamental right  – मौलिक अधिकार
b. legal right  – कानूनी अधिकार
c. constitutional right  – संवैधानिक अधिकार
d. None of the above  – इनमें से कोई भी नहीं

Feedback

Recently, in Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (retd.) vs Unionof India, a nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court ruled that right to privacy is anintrinsic part of life and liberty under Article 21. The correct answer is: Fundamental right  – मौलिक अधिकार


2018
80. With reference to India’s satellite launch  vehicles, consider the following statements:
1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for  Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch l vehicle with the first and third stages l using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct.?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only
Answer.a


► UPSC 2018 Foundation Test Series ► Current Affairs Bimonthly Tests 2016-2017
General ► Current Affair Mock Test 6


Which of the following is correct regarding GSLV-MkIII
1. It will help India putting satellites of the class of 6,000 to 15,000 kilos  with some variations, to geostationary transfer orbits at 36,000 km
2. It will use a semi-cryogenic engine
3. The engine will use space-grade kerosene as fuel and liquid oxygen as oxidizer
निम्न में से कौन जी.एस.एल.वी.-एम.के.3 के बारे में सही है–


1 यह मदद करेगा भारत की, कुछ बदलाव के साथ, 6,000 से 15,000 किलो के वर्ग के उपग्रहों को, 36,000 किमी पर भूस्थिर हस्तांतरण कक्षाओं में स्थापित करने के लिए


2. यह एक सेमी-क्रायोजेनिक इंजन का उपयोग करेगा


3. यह इंजन स्पेस-ग्रेड केरोसिन का उपयोग बतौर ईंधन करेगा और तरल ऑक्सीजन का उपयोग ऑक्सीकारक के रूप में करेगा
—————————-


एक चुनो:


Select one:
a. 1
b. 1 2
c. 1 2 3
d. None
Ans c
Explanation
Mega launchers for ISRO soon


Apart from powering rockets to lift heavier satellites, it will also lower the cost per kilo.
An advanced Indian mega space launcher that can deliver ten-tonne and heavier communication satellites to space and using a semi-cryogenic engine is likely to to power ISRO’s launchers by around 2018.
That is the space agency’s next big space vehicle, having just achieved the GSLV for lifting 2,000-kg payloads. The agency is gearing up for first test flight of the GSLV Mark-III vehicle in December with a 4,000-kg payload.
Currently, the government has approved the development of the semi-cryogenic stage alone.
When fitted suitably into a launch vehicle, it will see India putting satellites of the class of 6,000 to 10,000 kilos — or with some variations, lift even 15,000-kg payloads — to geostationary transfer orbits at 36,000 km. The engine is expected to triple or quadruple ISRO’s transportation ability.
Massive payloads
Pre-project work on what is called the SCE-200 began about four years back. “We plan to have an [semi-cryogenic] engine and stage capable of flight by the end of 2018 and try it on the GSLV-MkIII.
This would readily boost Mk-III’s maximum lifting capability from 4,000 kg to 6,000 kg,” Dr K. Sivan, Director of Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre at Thiruvanthapuram, the lead centre for launch vehicle development, said.
Two years thereafter, around 2020, this will be enhanced to 15,000 kg by putting strap-ons in clusters — the stage where major European and U.S. launch providers already are.
The engine will use space-grade kerosene as fuel and liquid oxygen as oxidiser. The development is going on at the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre and the ISRO Propulsion Complex at Mahendragiri in Tamil Nadu.
“The semi-cryogenic engine is getting fabricated. Testing of its pump and components has been going on. An engine testing facility is also getting set up at Mahendragiri,” Dr. Sivan said.
Apart from powering rockets to lift heavier satellites, it will also effectively lower the cost per kilogram to reach orbits, which is the goal of all space-faring nations, he said.
Liquid fuel
The high-power local capability is needed as Indian communication satellites move towards 5,000-plus kg and more from 2017. By then, ISRO plans to build and launch its heaviest 5,700-kg GSAT-11 spacecraft, although on a European Ariane rocket for a big fee. Its present rockets can lift only up to 2,000 kg to this orbit.
Dr. Sivan said, “The GSLV-MkIII that we plan to test in December has a core liquid fuel stage. When the semi-cryogenic engine gets ready, our plan is to replace the liquid stage with the SCE. We straightaway get six-tonne payload capability, two tonnes over what Mark III can give.”
Subsequently the plan is to have a modular vehicle (earlier called the unifield launch vehicle) which allows variations suited to different payloads; this being done with the PSLV with its three versions.
For example, Dr. Sivan said: “We can have a bigger semicryogenic stage with clustered engines, similar to what SpawceX did using nine Merlin engines. We can then get a payload of 15 tonnes in the GTO.”


2018
Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
(a ) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
Answer.c

UPSC 2018 Foundation Test Series ► Full Length Mocks Test 2018 ► General ► Test 2


A Bill is deemed to be a ‘Money Bill’ if it has any provisions dealing with
अगर इसमें किसी भी…………… से निपटने के लिए कोई प्रावधान है, तो एक विधेयक को ‘मनी बिल’ समझा जाता है-


1. imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
किसी भी टैक्स को लागू, उन्मूलन, छूट, परिवर्तन या विनियमित करने
2. appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India  – भारत की समेकित निधि से धन का विनियोग
3. imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties  – जुर्माना या अन्य वित्तीय दंड
4. payment of fee for licences or fee for service rendered
प्रदान की गई सेवाओं के लिए शुल्क का भुगतान या लाइसेंस के लिए शुल्क का भुगतान


Select the correct answer using the code given below.  – नीचे दिए गए कोड से सही उत्तर का चयन करें-


Select one:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2 only


2018


Consider the following countries :
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN ?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
Answer.c


UPSC 2018 Foundation Test Series ► Current Affairs Bimonthly Tests 2016-2017 ►
General ► Current Affair Mock Test 9 [ November 1-15 ]


Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a proposed free trade agreement (FTA) between
1. India
2. China
3. ASEAN Countries
4. Australia
5.Japan
6. South Korea
7. New Zealand
क्षेत्रीय व्यापक आर्थिक भागीदारी (आरसीईपी) एक प्रस्तावित मुक्त व्यापार समझौता (एफटीए) है, इन के बीचः

1. भारत
2. चीन
3. आसियान देश
4. ऑस्ट्रेलिया
5. जापान
6. दक्षिण कोरिया
7. न्यूजीलैंड

एक चुनो:


Select one:
a. 1 2 3
b. 1 2 3 6
c. 2 3
d. 1 2 3 4 5 6

Feedback

Your answer is incorrect.
Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a proposed free trade agreement (FTA) between the ten member states of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) (Brunei, Burma (Myanmar), Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam) and the six states with which ASEAN has existing FTAs (Australia, China, India, Japan, South Korea and New Zealand).
http://www.thehindu.com/business/rcep-members-worried-about-giving-more/article9291663.ece

RCEP is the proposed mega-regional Free Trade Agreement (FTA) between 16 Asia-Pacific countries including India, China, Japan, South Korea, Australia, New Zealand and the 10-member ASEAN bloc.

The concerns of 15 Asia-Pacific nations including India, over agreeing to give greater market access to Chinese goods without gaining similarly in return, are likely to take centre-stage in the forthcoming ministerial meeting on the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP).


2018


In the federation established by The Government on India Act of 1935. Residuary Power were given to the
(a) Federal Legislature
(b) Governor General
(c) Provincial Legislature
(d) Provincial Governors
Answer.b

UPSC 2018 Foundation Test Series ► Reference Books Based Tests ► General ►
Reference Books Based Tests 3
Consider the following   – निम्नलिखित को ध्यान से पढ़ें-


1.The present Constitution follows the scheme of 1935 act that provided for a three-fold enumeration, viz., federal, provincial and concurrent.
वर्तमान संविधान 1935 अधिनियम की एक योजना का पालन करता है जो कि एक त्रिस्तरीय emumenration के लिए प्रदान करता था, जैसे, संघीय, प्रांतीय और समवर्ती
2.The Government of India (GoI) Act of 1935 vested residuary power to the federal legislature .
भारत सरकार 1935 अधिनियम ने संघीय विधान मंडल में अवशेष शक्ति निहित की


Choose the correct statement  – एक चुनो:
Select one:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2 both
d. None

Ans 1 only

Explanation
The Government of India (GoI) Act of 1935 provided for a three-fold enumeration, viz., federal,provincial and concurrent. The present Constitution follows the scheme of this act but with one difference, that is, under this act, the residuary powers were given neither to the federal legislature nor to the provincial legislature but to the governor-general of India. In this respect, India follows the Canadian precedent


2018

96. Consider the following statements:
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer.c
UPSC 2018 Foundation Test Series ► Full Length Mocks Test 2018 ► Test 5
The President of India and the Governor of States enjoy the following immunities (Article 361):
(i) The President or the Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise and
performance of the powers and duties of his office.
(ii) No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the President or the
Governor in any court during his term of office.
(iii) No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President or the Governor shall be
issued from any court during his term of office.
(iv) No civil proceedings against the President or the Governor shall be instituted during his
term of office in any court in respect of any act done by him in his personal capacity,
whether before or after he entered upon his office, until the expiration of two months next
after notice has been delivered to him.
2018
98. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news?
(a) An Israeli radar system
(b) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme
(c) An American anti missile system
(d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea


UPSC 2018 Foundation Test Series ► Current Affairs Bimonthly Tests 2016-2017 ►Current Affairs Mock Test 20 (16 – 30th April )


THAAD
Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD) is an anti-ballistic missile defense system developed by US.
It is designed to shoot down short, medium and intermediate range ballistic missiles in their terminal phase.
The missile carries no warhead, but relies on the kinetic energy to destroy the incoming missile.
A kinetic energy hit minimizes the risk of exploding conventional warhead ballistic missiles and nuclear tipped ballistic missiles will not detonate upon a kinetic energy hit.
U.S and South Korea agreed last year to deploy the THAAD to counter the threat of missile launches by North Korea.


100
Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law” ?
1. Limitation of powers
2. Equality before law
3. People’s responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer.c
UPSC 201 8 Foundation Test Series ► Reference Books Based Tests ►
Reference Books Based Test 2 Q 50


Which of the following constitutes ‘Rule of Law’ in India
इनम से कौन सा भारत म ‘कानून का िनयम’ का गठन करता है
1 .Equality before law ­ कानून से पहले समता
2.Absence of special privileges ­ िवशेष िवशेषािधकारों का अभाव
3.Absence of discrimination ­ भेदभाव का अभाव
4.Absence of arbitrary power ­ मनमानी श का अभाव
5. Primacy of the Constitution ­ संिवधान की ाथिमकता
Select one:
a. 1 ,3,4
b. 1 ,2,3,4
c. 1 ,2,3,4,5
d. 1 ,2,3
Your answer is incorrect.
Rule of Law The concept of ‘equality before law’ is an element of the concept of
‘Rule of Law’,
propounded by A.V. Dicey, the British jurist. His concept has the following three
elements or
aspects:
(i) Absence of arbitrary power, that is, no man can be punished except for a breach
of law.
(ii) Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all citizens (rich or poor, high
or low,
official or non­official) to the ordinary law of the land administered by the ordinary
law
courts3.
(iii) The primacy of the rights of the individual, that is, the constitution is the result of
the rights of
the individual as defined and enforced by the courts of law rather than the
constitution being
the source of the individual rights.
The first and the second elements are applicable to the Indian System and not the
third one. In the
Indian System, the constitution is the source of the individual rights.
The Supreme Court held that the ‘Rule of Law’ as embodied in Article 1 4 is a ‘basic
feature’ of the
constitution. Hence, it cannot be destroyed even by an amendment
The correct answer is: 1 ,2,3,4,5


Source: xaam.in




ARC Report hand written notes for UPSC IAS Mains

Download

The Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) Reports are important documents from the UPSC civil services exam perspective. They contain a lot of useful information important for the IAS mains exam covering aspects of public administration, governance, ethics in civil services, conflict resolution, etc. Even though highly beneficial, most aspirants skip reading the ARC reports due to their bulk. How do you read these reports and extract value from them? Read on for more.
What is ARC?
The ARC or the Administrative Reforms Commission is a committee set up by the Government of India to review the public administration system and give recommendations to improve it. The reports by the Commission are called the ARC reports. The first ARC (1966) was headed by Morarji Desai initially and later by K. Hanumanthaiah. The second ARC constituted in 2005 was chaired by Veerappa Moily. The 2nd ARC submitted 15 reports to the Government covering areas like RTI, ethics in governance, local governance, terrorism, public administration, e-governance, financial management and so on.
How to read ARC Reports for UPSC Exam?
The ARC reports contain a lot of material for the UPSC mains exam and all serious IAS aspirants, not just those with public administration as the optional subject, are advised to read them. These reports are indeed bulky and UPSC aspirants (who are generally hard pressed for time) find it difficult to read them from cover to cover. It is recommended that aspirants read at least a summary of the reports that are available. The reports themselves summarise the contents at the end of each report. Aspirants can go through them. The reports are available online in the ARC official website for free. Reading the reports (or the gist) will help aspirants in all the General Studies papers.
The most important reports of the 2nd ARC are given below in case you are not able to go through all of them:
  1. Report 1: Right to Information
  2. Report 3: Crisis Management
  3. Report 4: Ethics in Governance
  4. Report 8: Combating Terrorism
  5. Report 11: E-governance
  6. Report 12: Citizen Centric Administration
  7. Report 14: Strengthening Financial Management Systems
Highlights of the ARC Reports
  • The recommendations of the committee are important and should be focused on by the aspirants in their mains preparation.
  • Another wonderful thing about the reports is that they contain a lot of case studies and relevant quotations that you can use in your answers in the UPSC civil services mains exam.


Source: xaam.in




[Timetable] UPSC Mains-2018: Five holidays to revise Optional, but Sunday NOT OFF

Timetable for IAS Mains-2018 is out

UPSC has uploaded the time table for Civil Services Mains exam 2018.
  • Exam starts from 28th September 2018. Each day the morning (9AM to 12 noon) and Afternoon (2 PM to 5PM) schedule is as following:
  • 28/9-FridayEssay paper in the morning. Nothing in the afternoon. (may be to give warmup and then rest to the first-time players)
  • 29/9-SaturdayGSM1 and GSM2 in the morning and afternoon respectively.
  • 30/3-SundayGSM3 and GSM4 (Ethics) in the morning and afternoon respectively.
  • Then continuous holidays till 6th October.
  • 6/10-Saturday: Indian Language and English language paper.
  • 7/10-Sunday: Optional Subject Paper 1 and Paper 2.
Timetable of UPSC Mains-2018

5 days to revise Optional Subject, Sunday is not OFF

  • In a significant departure from the past, there will be five days gap between GS Papers and Optional Papers.
  • In the past, UPSC used to organize the exam on almost continuous basis, with barely one holiday in between the papers. And they’d keep Sunday as holiday in past, wherein 2018 they’ll conduct Mains on Sunday as well.
  • 2017’s exam: one holiday between Essay and GSM1. Then one holiday between Compulsory language vs. Optional Paper.
  • 2016’s exam: same pattern as 2017. One holiday each between (Essay vs GSM1) and (English vs Optional)



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Source: xaam.in




Why so few women work in India (GS 1,UPSC,IAS Mains)

With less than a quarter of women of working age in the labour force, India has far fewer women working or available for work compared to any other large economy in the world. Women’s participation in the labour force declined sharply in the country precisely when the country’s economic engine was growing the fastest: between 2004-05 and 2011-12.
Data from the two latest quinquennial employment surveys of the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) show that this was driven by a rise in the share of women who listed ‘attending to domestic duties’ as their principal activity in the year preceding the surveys.
While the rise in share of women attending to domestic duties was more pronounced among rural women, the share of women attending to domestic duties was higher in urban India in both surveys. The analysis includes all women in the age group 15-59 at the time of the survey.
Among major religious groups, Sikhs and Muslims reported the highest share of women attending to domestic duties in 2011-12. Among Hindus, the share was higher for upper castes than for other caste groups.
A big reason why women don’t work is because there is usually no one else to do the tasks that a patriarchal society assigns to them. In rural India, this often means attending to onerous tasks such as fetching water, or collecting firewood. In urban India, this may mean childcare in an environment where help is not as easy to come by as in rural India.
The force of patriarchy also manifests itself in socio-religious constraints, which restrict the mobility of women. Across major states, the share of women attending to domestic duties is broadly correlated with the share of women citing social and religious constraints as the main reason for attending to domestic duties.
In states such as Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana, women face such barriers to a greater extent compared to states such as Tamil Nadu, Karnataka or Kerala. The former states also have a higher share of women attending to domestic duties compared to the latter.
A majority of women attending to domestic duties are, however, willing to work part-time if such work were made available at their household, the survey data shows.
Tailoring work seems to be the most preferred option for such women, followed by dairy-related and poultry-related work. The share of women who cited tailoring as their most preferred option rose sharply between 2004-05 and 2011-12.
Most women who want to take up such work emphasized the need for finance and training, the data shows. Nearly half of them cited access to finance (or working capital) as one of the requirements to start part-time work, while a third cited training as a key requirement.
The data suggests that the Skill India initiative may have missed a trick by focusing largely on male candidates looking for full-time work. Given the rising demand for training among homemakers looking for part-time work, they could benefit greatly from a skilling initiative that helps them get into part-time work, or to start their own enterprises.

Why so few women work in India


Source: xaam.in




Going beyond lateral entry in civil services (GS paper 2,UPSC IAS Mains)

Why are civil servants busy oiling the wheels and not seeing where the engine is going? The short answer is that is what they are trained to do.
The proposed lateral entry for 10 identified posts on contract at the level of joint secretary to bring in “fresh ideas and new approaches”, opening so-called cadre posts to other services and persons from society, is in line with global trends. For instance, the post of London Metropolitan Police Commissioner was advertised in 2016. Unfortunately, the debate has focused on selection procedure, not the implications for governance.
The related proposal of the prime minister’s office for allotment of service and state cadres on the combined basis of Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) results and performance in the 100-day foundation course could be a significant development, if both initiatives lead to a new approach to training, which is the success factor for public administrative reform.
In October 2017, Narendra Modi spent a day with 360 officer trainees of the foundation course and encouraged them to study and research governance issues in depth, so that they could understand them well. He stressed the need to develop a national vision. However, the stated objectives of the foundation course are a feeling of pride and behaviour: to foster greater cooperation and coordination among various public services by building an esprit de corps, and to promote all round development of the personality of an officer trainee—intellectual, moral, physical and aesthetic. The course does not stress, for example, joint research on governance to bring out a shared understanding and impact on national goals.
The mission statement of the academy has been adapted from business schools with a short-term focus on tools to do well at work rather than on what it means to lead and whom they are meant to serve. The statement focuses on a caring, ethical and transparent framework, with the core value of serving the underprivileged with integrity, respect, collaboration and professionalism. These remain good intentions relevant for any organization. The curricula relies on a descriptive sectoral framework reinforcing vertical silos rather than analytical horizontal communication and cooperation. The National Training Policy, 2012, adopts a “competency-based approach”, which does not address the tension of forcing missions into poorly fitted processes that the prime minister stressed.
While the 150-year-old principles of merit remain important, how well civil servants accomplish the government’s mission and how they do so are of equal importance. Any reform should fit the core principles of merit to the challenges of public service.
First, developing effective user-focused digital services is now necessary. As citizens easily connect effectively with each other in real time, they expect the same end-to-end services from their administrators; social media is not the solution. For example, in data-driven social service programmes, efficiency takes precedence over equity and error-rates discriminate against the underprivileged. Assumptions amplify biases in the use of algorithms, with failings classified as technical issues; Aadhaar is an example. Public servants need to understand the potential and prejudices that go into the design of the software as it substitutes for extensive field visits that were earlier required. Relying on the promise of technology ignores its limitations in serving the citizens, enforcing laws and analysing policy options.
Second, preventing problems and solving them when they occur, even with incomplete information, is important. For example, issues of poverty and inequality are no longer related to land ownership but stretch across many sectors, including technology-driven structural change. There is no rural-urban divide but a continuum of aspirations; defining the problem is half the solution. The impact of a policy across a diverse nation has to be understood.
Third, solutions must not shy away from radical restructuring. Being “strategic” is not just about opening a factory or making a highway. It requires appreciating political, economic and social consequences, the spectre of unemployment or the causes of farmers’ protests, urban slums, tribal discontent and violation of laws. Distribution issues remain important. These could range from what it is like to be living without electricity, water and education, or reasons for an environmental protest and the impact of growing inequality. In most cases, civil servants really consider symptoms and not causes of problems as if the system itself is the best possible one and there are no other ways of governance.
Fourth, human resource management concepts taught by professors from business schools treat human beings like technological or financial resources to be used to establish a successful organization, or even ignore citizens in achieving a mission. The corollary is that civil servants consider themselves as part of an elite, with the moral consequences of actions as mere afterthoughts for which “integrity,” “ethics” and “social responsibility” are brought into the equation.
Fifth, accountability, the need for a system that holds administrators accountable for both results and the public interest, is central. For example, case studies of tension between civil servants, and between them and politicians, business and society should be discussed to better understand responsibility. Similarly, the human and economic cost of delay and the importance of the rule of law has to be imbibed. These issues certainly must not be treated as challenges and then ignored in practice.
Civil servants must understand that there are many different solutions and they must have the confidence to be innovative, yet always serve the public interest.
The duration of the foundation course needs to be increased to 300 days. The UPSC should award marks on the basis of an exam, with a degree in public administration and a condensed foundation course instituted for lateral entrants


Source: xaam.in




Essay Compilation(UPSC IAS Mains,Essay)


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Modern India – Balyan Sir download (UPSC IAS Mains,GS 1)


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Auditing Fraud (GS 3,Corporate governanance)

The Serious Fraud Investigation Offi ce needs the government’s attention to fulfi l its mandate adequately.
Over the last 15 years, but more so since 2013, the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) has emerged as India’s premier corporate fraud investigation agency, investigating several high-profile cases. Why, then, is an organisation that is entrusted with uncovering corporate wrongdoing being left to function with inadequate personnel and is, therefore, being able to fulfil only a fraction of its potential?
Inadequate staffing is not new in government agencies, but the responsibilities of the SFIO have increased ever since it was granted statutory powers under the Companies Act, 2013. Data from parliamentary questions shows that about 447 company investigations were assigned to the SFIO between April 2014 and January 2018, accounting for 67% of the 667 total investigations assigned to it since its inception in 2003. The number of sanctioned positions, however, has remained stagnant at around 133 since 2014–15 and 69 positions lie vacant.
The SFIO, which comes under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), describes itself as a “multi-disciplinary” organisation that investigates and guides prosecution in white-collar fraud requiring expertise in forensic auditing, corporate law, information technology, capital markets, taxation, and other allied fields. It was established by the Atal Bihari Vajpayee–led National Democratic Alliance government on 2 July 2003, based on recommendations by the Naresh Chandra Committee on Corporate Audit and Governance. Although it received statutory powers under the Companies Act, 2013 during the tenure of the Manmohan Singh–led United Progressive Alliance government, the rules giving it the power to make arrests came into effect only in August 2017. Since its inception, the SFIO was understood to be a specialised organisation that would require a wide spectrum of expertise, and recruitment would be in large part deputation-based, drawing on expertise from various civil services cadres, and on consultants with the required expertise.
Cases are assigned to the SFIO based on the scale of financial misappropriation or extent of public interest that is at stake. The most recent high-profile corporate fraud by Nirav Modi and Mehul Choksi, who have allegedly defrauded Punjab National Bank, is also being investigated by the SFIO. Over the last 15 years, several such high-level cases of corporate fraud have been investigated by the SFIO, including the companies involved in the 2G spectrum allocations, the Kingfisher Airlines case, the Saradha chit fund scam, and the Satyam computers fraud, to name a few. In many of these cases, the SFIO has invariably found that much of the crime is perpetrated along with auditors who actively collude or look the other way. According to a 2015 SFIO report, a third of the top 500 companies in India were “managing” their accounts, including those in the top 100. In some cases, the SFIO advised the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India to investigate the role of errant accountants. This should not surprise us: the financial sector in the United States and the world boomed while corporations and pliant auditors colluded, and it all came tumbling down in what we know as the global financial crisis of 2007–08, when the audit reports of company after company were found to be worthless.
An independent well-functioning SFIO will keep corporate greed and colluding auditors in check, and will be one way of upholding the law, as well as the interests of the retail investor and the public at large. To do this, it needs to draw on experts who are capable of executing such investigations. One of the explanations for vacancies in the SFIO is the dearth of personnel with adequate experience and expertise for this kind of work. With the number of cases mounting, the SFIO will need to look beyond a deputation-based recruitment system, to one that recruits full-time, specially trained personnel. Drawing on the private sector may be fraught with its own difficulties (pay disparities are high since the private sector pays lavishly, conflicts of interest, continued loyalty to private employers, etc). That the SFIO should move away from the deputation system to having a permanent cadre of its own has been recognised early on, but remains unfulfilled. The Standing Committee on Finance, chaired by Veerappa Moily (33rd report, in December 2017; 59th report, in March 2018) “found that despite finalisation of the Recruitment Rules, there were still huge vacancies within the organisation which crippled its capability to swiftly dispose off cases.” There is a real need for the creation of a permanent cadre, which will eventually be a way to ensure that more of the sanctioned positions are filled.
Even as the recruitment systems will ensure that more positions are filled in the SFIO, there are other agencies that also suffer from understaffing. The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), for instance, a much older organisation with a pool of specialised cadre is also lacking adequate trained personnel. As of March 2017, over 20% of 7,274 sanctioned positions in the CBI lay vacant.
Clearly, a part of the problem of staffing stems from deficient political will. For a government that claims to take financial fraud and corruption seriously, not enough is being done to ensure that the key investigation organisations, like the SFIO and CBI, are adequately staffed to perform their functions efficiently.


Source: xaam.in




A Plastic Calamity (GS-3, Environment and Biodiversity, UPSC,IAS mains)

Banning single-use plastics is inadequate without enforcing the law and creating consumer awareness.
Edicts and pronouncements do not bring about change; they need to be backed by detailed, realistic, and implementable plans. Although Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s announcement on 5 June, World Environment Day, that India would eliminate single-use plastics by 2022 is a dramatic statement of intent, it is not yet evident that the deadline is based on a considered plan to make this actually happen.
Discovered in 1898, polyethylene, or what we call plastic, became available for mass production only in 1939. Since then, the material has invaded our lives—from single-use plastic bags and packaging to many other utilitarian uses. It is cheap, light and flexible. Replacing it is not an easy task. It is also a symbol of a kind of economic development model, which we in India have imported and embraced from the older industrialised countries, that is premised on the principle of discard and replace. Nothing is supposed to last. Only then can the engines of industry continue to grow. Replacing this model now appears unthinkable. Yet, this is the source of our cavalier approach in accepting a throwaway culture that has led to what the United Nations Environment Programme calls a “plastic calamity.”
Today we have evidence that our oceans contain an estimated 150 million tonnes of plastic waste; sea life, birds and plants are literally choking because of it; vast tracts of land are overwhelmed with landfills that cannot biodegrade because of virtually indestructible plastic waste; and it is most worrying that micro-plastics from this waste are now making their way into water sources and the food chain. A recent study of tap water samples from several countries revealed that India was third after the United States and Lebanon in water contaminated by microplastics; 82.4% of the samples tested contained plastic. While the health impacts of ingesting plastic, either through water or food, are still being assessed, the very fact that plastic waste is affecting water supply is a cause for serious concern. Since the 1950s, 8.3 billion tonnes of plastic have been produced worldwide, but only around 20% of it has been recycled or incinerated. The rest is in the sea, on mountain slopes, in rivers and springs, in wells, in landfills, and in piles of garbage that are now the symbol of urban blight, especially in India. The challenge of dealing with this seems so enormous that it requires virtually the reverse engineering of our approach towards production and consumption.
The steps taken so far in India are essentially what could be termed “tail-end” solutions, much like the early efforts to deal with automobile pollution by making pollution checks mandatory for vehicles without addressing the quality of the fuel used. So far, 18 states have banned the use of single-use plastics in specific cities or demarcated areas. Nowhere has this been successful. The state that has achieved the most success in reducing the use of single-use plastics is Sikkim. Yet, despite a ban in 1998, till today it has not been successful in eliminating single-use plastic bags entirely. It has, however, managed to create awareness among its population of the environmental fallout of plastic waste and has tried to introduce cost-effective alternatives. On the other hand, in Delhi and Chandigarh, which along with Sikkim were part of a 2014 study by Toxics Link, “Toxics and the Environment,” a ban on plastic carry bags has failed to stop their use or to create consumer awareness. If this is the experience in small states of the size of Delhi and Chandigarh, what chance is there of such bans working in larger states like Maharashtra, which has recently notified a fairly drastic ban.
The problem, as the Toxics Link study emphasises, is twofold: first, the easy availability and cost-effectiveness of plastic carry bags for vendors, particularly those dealing with perishables like vegetables and meat; and, second, the low level of consumer awareness of the environmental problems created by plastic waste. Add to this the generally poor implementation of all manner of environmental regulations in India and you have, what the report calls, “the classic tragedy of the commons” where “individual consumers benefit from the use of plastic bags because of their convenience, while the whole society bears the collective cost of their disposal.”
While regulation, deterrence, and incentives can be one part of the solution, the larger challenge is stopping production of single-use plastics. In India, for instance, 85%–90% of plastic production is in the small and medium sector that remains largely unregulated. Yet, stopping single-use plastic carry bags is not enough. We should not forget that 48% of the plastic waste is the packaging of branded edible items and it is the bigger industries, including multinationals, that are responsible for this. Clearly, we need to enforce extended producer responsibility so that those using non-recyclable plastic in their packaging take responsibility and pay for its disposal. Furthermore, the alternatives to plastic bags, such as those made of biodegradable material, or of paper, jute, and cloth, need to be cost-effective. Finally, the consumer has to make a choice between convenience and an environmental disaster.


Source: xaam.in




Jamia Millia Islamia (JMI) Free Residential Coaching for IAS Exam (Pre-cum-Main) 2019

RESIDENTIAL COACHING ACADEMY
Online applications are invited for Free UPSC Coaching (With Hostel facility) 
for Civil Services Examination (Preliminary-Cum-Main) 2019.
Only applicable for Minorities, SC, ST and Women candidates.

1. Written test would comprise General Studies (objective type) on UPSC model and Essay writing in English/Hindi/Urdu to test candidate’s ability to express themselves in an organised and structured manner. The total duration of examination would be of three hours.
2. There would be negative marking for objective type questions in the test. One third of the marks will be deducted for a wrong answer.
3. The entrance test paper would be divided into two papers – Paper 1 and Paper 2. Paper 1 would consist of objective type questions. There would be 60 questions and the total marks for this section would be 60 (60×1=60). Paper 2 would consist of Essay writing for which the total allotted marks would be 60. Candidates would be required to write two essays (30×2=60) choosing one from each section-A & B. The total time allotted for both the Papers would be three hours. However the OMR sheet would be collected after one hour i.e. at 11 a.m. Time allotted for writing the essays will be 02
hours. The students may take the question papers with them.
4. The total marks for Interview/Personality test would be 30.
5. In case of tie, the higher marks in essay and there is a tie again the higher marks in interview would be taken as basis of selection. If there is still a tie the candidate who is younger (age wise) would get the seat.
6. Only those candidates who have already completed their Graduation need to apply.
7. Coaching will include (a) classes on General Studies, CSAT and selected optional papers (b) Test series, answer’s evaluation and Essay writing practice shall form part of the curriculum.
8. The Academy will also conduct Mock Interviews for those who qualify the main examination.
9. Test Series (Prelims cum Main) will be held during January – May 2019.
10. Test Series (Main) will be held during July – September 2019.
11. Library facility is provided (24×7)
12. Scholarship to 20% admitted students @ Rs. 2000/- per month will be provided on mean-cum-merit basis.
13. Total seats available: 150 (One hundred fifty seats). Hostel accommodation will be provided to all the admitted students. In case of shortage, hostel seats may be allotted in phased manner strictly on the basis of merit determined by the entrance test. However, RCA reserves the right to reduce the intake if sufficiently meritorious candidates are not found to be available.
14. Application has to be submitted online only ( www.jmicoe.in ) with a fee of Rs. 500.00. + applicable bank charges.
15. Helpline Nos : 9836219994,9836289994,9836319994.

Important Dates:

Schedule for Civil Services (Preliminary-cum-Main) – 2018 Coaching Programme
Last date for submission of Application Form 1st July 2018 (Sunday)
Written Test – GS (objective type) and Essay 22nd July,2018 (Sunday) 10.00 am
to 01.00 pm.
Result of written test 27th August, 2018 (Monday), 05.00 pm.
Interview (Tentative) 04-07 & 10-14 September, 2018
Final Result (Tentative) 27th September, 2018 (Thursday), 05.00 pm.
Last date for completion of admission 4th October, 2018 (Thursday)
Registration for waiting list candidates 5th October, 2018 (Friday)
Admission for waiting list candidates 8th October, 2018 (Monday)
Classes (Orientation) 15th October, 2018 (Monday) 11.00 am.

Examination Fees:

Application has to be submitted online only (www.jmicoe.in) with a fee of Rs.500.00. + applicable bank charges.
Only applicable for Minorities, SC, ST and Women candidates.

Click Here to Download Official Notification

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