[Mock Test 2] NCERT 100 MCQs from Class 7 (All Subject), 8 (only Social Science), 9 (All Subjects)

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Instructions

  • NCERT Test No. 2 by Venkat Sir of Pandit Deendayal Petroleum University (PDPU) UPSC Study centre, Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
  • 100 questions from NCERT Class 7 (All subjects), Class 9 (All subjects) and Class 8 (Only Social science).
  • so Test #1 and #2, collectively concludes NCERT Class 7, 8, 9 and 10 all subjects.
  • Upcoming tests
  • India Yearbook Chapter 1 to 12
  • NCERT Class 11 only (all subjects)
  • NCERT Class 12 only (all subjects)

Q1 to 25

1. Tripartite struggle was for what and by whom
  1. Kanauj; Gurjara-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta and Pala
  2. Tanjore; Chera, Chola and Pandya
  3. Madurai; Chera, Chola and Pandya
  4. None of the above
2. Which are CORRECT?
  1. Delhi became an important city only in the twelfth century
  2. Delhi first became the capital of a kingdom under the Tomara Rajputs
  3. Under the Tomaras and Chauhans, Delhi became an important commercial centre
A. 1 & 2 Only
B. 2 Only
C. 1 & 3
D. 1, 2 & 3
3. Assertion (A): Aurangzeb succeeded his father Shah Jahan to the throne
Reason (R): Mughals did believe in the rule of primogeniture and rejected custom of coparcenary inheritance
A. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
B. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
C. A is Correct; But not R
D. R is Correct; But not A
4. The Khajuraho complex
  1. Were built during the Chandela dynasty
  2. King Dhangadeva constructed Kandariya Mahadeva temple
  3. Belong to two different religions – Hinduism and Jainism
Which are CORRECT?
A. 1 & 2 Only
B. 1 Only
C. 2 Only
D. 1, 2 & 3
5. Match the following
Tribal Known for
I. The Ahoms a. made high quality gunpowder and cannons
II. The Gonds b. practiced shifting cultivation
III. Banjaras c. most important trader nomads
IV. Bhils d. hunter gatherers
Answer choices
Opt. I II III IV
A b a c d
B a b c d
C a b d c
D b a d c
6. Which is/are TRUE?
  1. Nayanars (saints devoted to Shiva) and Alvars (saints devoted to Vishnu) who came from all castes including those considered untouchables
  2. Nayanars and Alvars were sharply critical of the Buddhists and Jainas
A. 1 Only
B. 2 Only
C. 1 & 2
D. None
7. Virashaivism – Which is NOT True?
  1. Movement initiated by Basavanna and his companions like Allama Prabhu and Akkamahadevi
  2. Encouraged all forms of ritual and idol worship
  3. Argued strongly for the equality of all human beings
  4. Both A & C
8. Consider following statements
Assertion (A): All those who conquered Orissa, such as the Mughals, the Marathas and the English East India Company, attempted to gain control over the Puri temple
Reason(R): In Orissa control over the Puri temple provided the legitimacy to the rulers over the local people
  1. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
  2. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
  3. A is Correct; But not R
  4. R is Correct; But not A
9. Consider following statements
Statement I:Mughal Empire started facing a variety of crises towards the closing years of the seventeenth century
Statement II: Emperor Aurangzeb had depleted the military and financial resources of his empire by fighting a long war in the Deccan
Staement III:It became increasingly difficult for the later Mughal emperors to keep a check on powerful mansabdars
  1. Statement I, II & III are correct; Statements II & III both are explanations for Statement I
  2. Statement I & Statement II are only correct and Statement III is wrong; And Statement II is correct explanation for Statement I
  3. Statement I is Correct; But not Statement II & III
  4. Statement II & III are Correct; But not Statement I
10. Burhan-ul-Mulk Sa‘adat Khan founded a state which was one of the most important to emerge out of the break-up of the Mughal Empire
A. Hyderabad
B. Awadh
C. Bengal
D. Jodhpur
11. Digestion is a complex process involving: Which is the correct sequence
  1. Absorptionà ingestion à digestion à assimilationàegestion
  2. Ingestion à digestion à assimilationà absorptionà egestion
  3. Ingestion à digestion à absorptionà assimilationàegestion
  4. Digestion à ingestion àabsorptionà assimilationàegestion
12. Some Indian breeds of sheep: identify which is NOT matched [Name of breed – Quality of wool – State where found]
  1. Lohi – Good quality wool – Rajasthan
  2. Patanwadi – Hosiery – Chattisgarh
  3. Nali – Carpet wool – Haryana
  4. Bakharwal – Woollen shawls – Jammu and Kashmir
13. What are the precautions to be observed while reading a clinical thermometer?
  1. Thermometer should be washed before and after use, preferably with an antiseptic solution
  2. Ensure that before use the mercury level is below 35°C
  3. Hold the thermometer by the bulb while reading it
A. 1 Only
B. 1 & 2 Only
C. 1 & 3 Only
D. All the above
14. Match the following
I. Calcium hydroxide a. Lime water I. Calcium hydroxide
II. Ammonium hydroxide b. Soap II. Ammonium hydroxide
III. Potassium hydroxide c. Milk of magnesia III. Potassium hydroxide
IV. Magnesium hydroxide d. Window cleaner IV. Magnesium hydroxide
Answer choices
Opt. I II III IV
A b a c d
B a b c d
C a d b c
D d c b a
15. Which of the following statements are CORRECT about the tropical rainforests?
  1. Even in the coldest month the temperature is generally higher than about 15°C
  2. Days and nights are almost equal in length throughout the year
  3. Found in Southeast Asia, Central America and Central Africa
  4. Less competition between and among animals for food and shelter
A. 1 & 2 Only
B. 1, 2 & 3 Only
C. 3 & 4 Only
D. All the above
16. ‘Cyclone warning’ is issued
  1. 24 hours in advance
  2. 48 hours in advance
  3. 3 days in advance
  4. Discretion of District Collector
17. Which of the following statements is NOT CORRECT about Loamy soil?
  1. Loamy soil is a mixture of sand and clay
  2. Loamy soil is having humus
  3. Loamy soil is having right water holding capacity for the growth of plants
  4. Loamy soil the best topsoil for growing plants
18. Which is CORRECT?
  1. Normal range of breathing rate per minute in an average adult person at rest is 25 times per minute
  2. During heavy exercise, we get cramps in the legs due to the accumulation of lactic acid through aerobic respiration
  3. Diaphragm moves down during exhalation in respiration
  4. Our muscle cells can also respire anaerobically, but only for a short time, when there is a temporary deficiency of oxygen
19. Which is INCORRECT?
  1. Veins are the vessels which carry carbon dioxide-rich blood from all parts of the body back to the heart
  2. Pulmonary vein carries carbon dioxide-rich blood from the lungs to the heart
  3. Dialysis, blood is filtered periodically through an artificial process, is for kidney failure
  4. The major excretory product in humans is urea
20. Compact Fluorescent Light bulbs (CFL)
  1. Emit very low levels of UV
  2. Contain a small amount of mercury
  3. A very long lifespan, compared to the a normal incandescent bulb
Which are TRUE?
A. 1 & 2 Only
B. 2 & 3 Only
C. 1 & 3 Only
D. All the above
21. Equality before the law – What this means?
  1. Every person, from the President of the country to a domestic worker, has to obey the same laws
  2. No person can be discriminated against on the basis of their religion, race, caste, place of birth or whether they are female or male
  3. Every person has access to all public places
  4. Untouchability has been abolished
A. 1 & 2 Only
B. 2, 3 & 4 Only
C. 1 & 3 Only
D. All the above
22. Book titled Amar Jiban is the first known autobiography written by an Indian woman, written by
  1. Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain
  2. Rassundari Devi
  3. Pandita Ramabai
  4. None of the above
23. Which is INCORRECT?
  1. Earth’s crust forms only 0.5 per cent of the volume of the earth, 16 per cent consists of the mantle and 83 per cent makes the core
  2. Intrusive igneous rocks cool down slowly and they form large grains
  3. Deccan plateau is made up of Granite rocks
  4. The oceanic crust mainly consists of silica and magnesium and therefore called Sima
24. Which is INCORRECT?
  1. Beach is not an erosional feature of sea waves
  2. Flood plain is not depositional feature of a glacier
  3. Ox bow lakes are found in Deserts
  4. Meanders are found in River valleys
25. Third most abundant gas in the atmosphere
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Argon
C. Oxygen
D. Helium

Q25 to 50

26. Arrange the BRICS countries according to their Geographical size [Large to Small]
  1. Russia – China – Brazil – India – South Africa
  2. Russia– China– India– Brazil– South Africa
  3. Russia – Brazil – China – India – South Africa
  4. China – Russia – Brazil – India – South Africa
27. Consider the following statements about these peaks 1. Kanchenjunga 2. Nanga Parbat 3. Nanda Devi 4. Namcha Barwa
  1. These Peaks are arranged according to their heights i.e. highest to lowest
  2. These Peaks are arranged according to location i.e. West to East
Which is/are CORRECT?
A. 1 Only
B. 2 Only
C. 1 & 2
D. None of the above
28. Which one is NOT correct?
  1. The folds of Great Himalayas are asymmetrical in nature
  2. The core of Great Himalayas is composed of granite
  3. One of the most rugged mountain system is Pir Panjal range and forms the part of Himachal Himalayas
  4. Shiwaliks region is well known for its hill stations in Himalayas
29. Consider the following statements about the drainage patterns and find out the CORRECT?
  1. Drainage patterns depend on the slope of the land, underlying rock structure as well as the climatic conditions of the area
  2. A trellis drainage pattern develops where hard and soft rocks exist parallel to each other
  3. A rectangular drainage pattern develops on a weakly jointed rocky terrain
  4. Combination of several patterns may be found in the same drainage basin
A. 2 & 3 Only
B. 1, 2 & 4 Only
C. 1 & 4 Only
D. All the above
30. Match the following [State/s – Poverty Reduction Method]
1. Punjab and Haryana I. Public distribution of food grains
2. Kerala II. Land reform measures
3. West Bengal III. Human resource development
4. Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu IV. Agricultural growth rates
ANSWER CHOICES
Opt 1 2 3 4
A I II III IV
B IV III I II
C IV III II I
D I II IV III
31. Consider the following statements about the population density/growth in India. Which are Correct?
  1. Assam and most of the peninsular states have moderate population densities
  2. The Northern Plains and Kerala in the south have high to very high population densities
  3. Since 1981 the rate of population growth started declining gradually in India
  4. Meghalaya is having the highest decadal growth in the 2011 census
A. 1 & 2 Only
B. 1, 2 & 4 Only
C. 1, 2 & 3 Only
D. All the above
32. Statement I: Mahatma Gandhi emphasized games such as cricket, hockey, football and tennis for all the people of India
Statement II: Mahatma Gandhi believed that sport was essential for creating a balance between the body and the mind
  1. Statement I & Statement II are correct; Statement II is correct explanation for Statement I
  2. Statement I & Statement II are correct; But, Statement II is not-correct explanation for Statement I
  3. Statement I is Correct; But not Statement II
  4. Statement II is Correct; But not Statement I
33. Consider the following statements
1. The riverine plains and coastal regions in India are well-irrigated
2. Plateau regions such as the Deccan plateau have low levels of irrigation
3. Of the total cultivated area in the country less per cent is irrigated even today and large areas are dependent on rainfall
Which is/are CORRECT?
A. 1 & 2 Only
B. 2 & 3 Only
C. 1 & 3 Only
D. All the above
34. Statement I: Punjab farmers are now forced to use more and more chemical fertilizers and other inputs to maintain production level
Statement II: The continuous use of chemical fertilizers has led to degradation of soil health
A. Statement I & Statement II are correct; Statement II is correct explanation for Statement I
B. Statement I & Statement II are correct; But, Statement II is not-correct explanation for Statement I
C. Statement I is Correct; But not Statement II
D. Statement II is Correct; But not Statement I
35. Which is/are Correct?
  1. Seasonal unemployment is in general a feature of rural unemployment
  2. Disguised unemployment is in general a feature of rural unemployment
  3. Disguised unemployment is in general a feature of urban unemployment
  4. In the secondary sector, small scale manufacturing is the most labour absorbing in India
A. 1 & 2 Only
B. 1& 3 Only
C. 1, 2 & 4 Only
D. All the above
36. Which is INCORRECT?
  1. Poverty is still a serious problem in Orissa, Bihar, Assam and Uttar Pradesh
  2. Along with rural poverty urban poverty is also high in Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh
  3. Poverty declined substantially in China and Southeast Asian countries as a result of rapid economic growth and massive investments in human resource development
  4. In the countries of South Asia also there is rapid decline in the poverty
A. 1 Only
B. 1& 3 Only
C. 4 Only
D. 2 & 4 Only
37. Consider the following statements about Bose-Einstein condensate
  1. Satyendra Bose and Albert Einstein, had predicted it in the 1920s
  2. Atoms in this state super unexcited and super cold
  3. Atoms in this state super hot and super excited
  4. The atoms in a Bose-Einstein condensate (BEC) are largely similar to Plasma
Which is/are Correct?
A. 1 Only
B. 1 & 2 Only
C. 2, 3 & 4 Only
D. 1, 3 & 4 Only
38. The rate of evaporation depends upon
  1. The surface area exposed to the atmosphere
  2. The temperature & the humidity
  3. Wind speed
A. 1 & 2 Only
B. 2 & 3 Only
C. 1 & 3 Only
D. All the above
39. Which is INCORRECT?
  1. Tyndall effect – can be observed when sunlight passes through the canopy of a dense forest by scattering of a beam of light
  2. Face cream – Gel type of Colloid
  3. Ammonium chloride – Example of a solid which is sublime
  4. Chromatography – is the technique used for separation of those solutes that dissolve in the same solvent drugs from blood
40. The principle of Centrifugation used in
  1. To separate such mixtures those contain a sublimable volatile component from a non-sublimable impurity
  2. Diagnostic laboratories for blood and urine tests
  3. Dairies and home to separate butter from cream
  4. Washing machines to squeeze out water from wet clothes
Which are CORRECT?
A. 1 & 2 Only
B. 2 & 3 Only
C. 2, 3 & 4
D. 1 & 3 Only
41. According to Dalton’s atomic theory
  1. All matter is made of very tiny particles called atoms
  2. Atoms are divisible particles in a chemical reaction
  3. Atoms of a given element are identical in mass and chemical properties
  4. Atoms of different elements have different masses and chemical properties
Which is/are INCORRECT?
A. 1 Only
B. 2 Only
C. 1, 3 & 4
D. 3 & 4 Only
42. E. Goldstein in 1886 discovered the presence of new radiations in a gas discharge and called them canal rays. These are
A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Neutrons
D. Atoms
43. Which are matched related to CELL ORGANELLES?
  1. Lysosomes – a kind of waste disposal system of the cell
  2. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum – a role in detoxifying many poisons and drugs
  3. Golgi apparatus – complex sugars may be made from simple sugars
  4. Mitochondria – energy required for various chemical activities needed for life is released
A. 1, 2 & 3 Only
B. 1, 2 & 4 Only
C. 1, 3 & 4
D. 1, 2, 3, & 4
44. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT about RO plant?
  1. Reverse Osmosis works by using a high pressure pump to increase the pressure on the salt side of RO plant
  2. Reverse Osmosis works by using a low pressure pump to decrease the pressure on the salt side of RO plant
  3. Reverse Osmosis works by using a low pressure pump to increase the pressure on the pure water side of RO plant
  4. None of the Above
45. Which one of the following combinations of countries is representing mega diversity in South America?
  1. Ecuador, Peru, Mexico, Brazil
  2. Peru, Mexico, Zaire, Madagascar
  3. Brazil, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru
  4. Zaire, Madagascar, Ecuador, Colombia
46. Hemidactylus is a genus of the family of
  1. Common frog
  2. Sea horse
  3. House wall lizard
  4. House fly
47. Match the following [Principle – Device/Product]
1. Law of inertia a– Submarines
2. Archimedes’ principle b– Safety Belts
3. Electromechanical c- Miniature Circuit Breakers
4. Electromagnet d- Electric Bell
Answer
Opt. 1 2 3 4
A c d b a
B b a c d
C a b d c
D d c a b
48. The universal law of gravitation successfully explained several phenomena. Which of the following phenomenon are CORRECT?
  1. The motion of the moon around the earth
  2. The motion of planets around the Sun
  3. The tides due to the moon and the Sun
A. 1 & 2 Only
B. 2 & 3 Only
C. 1 & 3 Only
D. All the above
49. The speed of Sound at the same temperature in the hydrogen and oxygen will be
  1. High in Hydrogen and Low in Oxygen
  2. Low in Hydrogen and High in Oxygen
  3. Same in Hydrogen and Oxygen
  4. Random
50. Statement I: Anti-viral medicines are simple in making than anti-bacterial medicines
Statement II: Viruses have few biochemical mechanisms of their own and after they enter hosts cells, use hosts machinery for their life processes
  1. Statement I & Statement II are correct; Statement II is correct explanation for Statement I
  2. Statement I & Statement II are correct; But, Statement II is not-correct explanation for Statement I
  3. Statement I is Correct; But not Statement II
  4. Statement II is Correct; But not Statement I

Q51 to 75

51. Consider the following statements
  1. French Revolution of 1789 and popular uprising established a secure and stable democracy in France
  2. In the world, Democracy has expanded throughout the twentieth century
  3. Democracy has broaden evenly in all parts of the world in the twentieth century
  4. While a majority of countries are democratic today, there are still large parts of the world that are not democratic
Which are CORRECT?
A. 1 & 2 Only
B. 2 & 4 Only
C. 1 & 3 Only
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4
52. Statement I: Jim Yong Kim, a well known economist and known as a good governance banker, is the President of the World Bank
Statement II: The President of the World Bank has always been a citizen of the US, conventionally nominated by the Treasury Secretary of the US government
  1. Statement I & Statement II are correct; Statement II is correct explanation for Statement I
  2. Statement I & Statement II are correct; But, Statement II is not-correct explanation for Statement I
  3. Statement I is Correct; But not Statement II
  4. Statement II is Correct; But not Statement I
53. Statement I: General Assembly can take any decision about what action should be taken in a conflict between different countries
Statement II: Every one of the member states of the UN has one vote in the UN General Assembly
  1. Statement I & Statement II are correct; Statement II is correct explanation for Statement I
  2. Statement I & Statement II are correct; But, Statement II is not-correct explanation for Statement I
  3. Statement I is Correct; But not Statement II
  4. Statement II is Correct; But not Statement I
54. Ten countries in the International Monetary Fund having very high say in decisions. Which one of the following combination of countries is representing that?
  1. China, Italy, India, Canada
  2. China, Italy, Saudi Arabia, Canada
  3. China, Australia, Saudi Arabia, Canada
  4. China, India, Saudi Arabia, Canada
55. Consider the following statements
  1. In China, elections are regularly held after every five years for electing the country’s parliament called National People’s Congress
  2. The National People’s Congress has the power to appoint the President of the country and elects the President of the Supreme People’s Court
  3. It has nearly 3,000 members elected from all over China, including some members are elected by the army
  4. Before contesting elections, a candidate needs the approval of the Chinese Communist Party and only those who are members of the Chinese Communist Party or allied to it allowed contesting elections
Which are CORRECT?
A. 1 & 2 Only
B. 2 & 4 Only
C. 1 & 3 Only
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4
56. Statement I: Some basic values to be included in the constitution were accepted by all leaders much before the Constituent Assembly met to deliberate on the Constitution
Statement II: Motilal Nehru and others drafted constitution in the 1928 and the resolution at the Karachi session in 1931 both committed to the inclusion of universal adult franchise, right to freedom and equality and to protecting the rights of minorities in the constitution of independent India
  1. Statement I & Statement II are correct; Statement II is correct explanation for Statement I
  2. Statement I & Statement II are correct; But, Statement II is not-correct explanation for Statement I
  3. Statement I is Correct; But not Statement II
  4. Statement II is Correct; But not Statement I
57. Match the following leaders with their contribution
1. H.
C. Mookherjee
I- Founder Chair of Central Social Welfare Board
2. Jaipal Singh II- Member, Drafting Committee of the Constitution
3. Durgabai Deshmukh III- Founder President of Adivasi Maha Sabha
4. T.T.Krishnamachari IV- Vice-Chairman of the Constituent Assembly
Answer Choices
Opt 1 2 3 4
A I II III IV
B IV III I II
C IV III II I
D I II IV III
58. Consider the following statements about Constituent Assembly of India
  1. Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946
  2. Constituent Assembly have been chosen directly by all the people of India on the basis of universal adult franchise
  3. The Constituent Assembly that wrote the Indian constitution had 299 members
  4. Its first meeting was held in December 1946
Which is/are INCORRECT?
A. 1 & 3 Only
B. 2 & 4 Only
C. 2 Only
D. 4 Only
59. Which is/are CORRECT?
  1. Constitution of India is a collection of barely statements of values and philosophy
  2. Taking inspiration from British model, most countries in the contemporary world have chosen a preamble to their constitutions
A. 1 Only
B. 2 Only
C. 1 & 2
D. None of the above
60. Which is/are CORRECT?
  1. Rajya Sabha does not have power of no confidence
  2. Only a person who enjoys the support of the majority of the members in the Lok Sabha is appointed as the Prime Minister
  3. Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget of the government or any other money related law and Rajya Sabha can only delay it by 14 days or suggest changes in it
  4. The President of India is a part of the Parliament, although he/she is not a member of either House
A. 1, 2 & 3 Only
B. 2, 3 & 4 Only
C. 1 & 2
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4
61. The political system/model followed in most of the countries of Latin America
  1. Presidential System
  2. British model
  3. Parliamentary system of government with written Constitution
  4. B & C
62. Currently, in the Lok Sabha, seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are respectively
A. 87 and 48
B. 84 and 47
C. 42 and 23
D. 79 and 41
63. Consider the following statements
  1. Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura and Sikkim are the states having only one seat in Lok Sabha
  2. All the Union Territories are having same number of seat/s of representation in the Lok Sabha except Delhi
  3. Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh have less number of seats than Maharashtra and West Bengal in Lok Sabha
  4. There are states where there is no reservation of seats for Lok Sabha
Which is/are CORRECT?
A. 1, 2 & 3 Only
B. 2, 3 & 4 Only
C. 1 & 2
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4
64. Consider the following statements
  1. In India, it is the responsibility of the government to get the names of all the eligible voters put on the voters’ list
  2. A complete revision of the voters’ list takes place every five years in India
  3. It is only 18 years for being a voter in India, People’s Republic of China and in UK
Which is/are CORRECT?
A. 1 & 2 Only
B. 2 & 3 Only
C. 1 & 3 Only
D. All the above
65. Consider the following statements
  1. Security deposit for Lok Sabha election for a candidate is Rs. 25,000 and a candidate belonging to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe is required to make a security deposit of Rs. 12,500
  2. The maximum limits of election expenditure vary from State to State for Lok Sabha elections
Which is/are CORRECT?
A. 1 Only
B. 2 Only
C. 1 & 2
D. None of the above
66. All the political parties in our country have agreed to a Model Code of Conduct for election campaigns. According to this,
  1. No party or candidate can use any place of worship for election propaganda
  2. No party or candidate can use government vehicles, aircrafts and officials for elections
  3. Ministers shall not lay foundation stones of any projects, take any big policy decisions or make any promises of providing public facilities
  4. The contesting candidates and their campaigners must respect the home life of their rivals and should not disturb them by holding road shows or demonstrations in front of their houses
Which is/are CORRECT?
A. 1 & 2 Only
B. 3 Only
C. 2 & 3
D. All the above
67. There will be a disqualification to contest elections, as per Section 8 (3) of Representation of People Act, 1951, if a person is convicted of any offence and sentenced to an imprisonment of
A. 2 years or more
B. 3 years or more
C. 4 years or more
D. 5 years or more
68. Many people were secretly picked up by the US forces from all over the world and put in a prison in Guantanamo Bay, an area controlled by American Navy. This Guantanamo Bay is in 
A. Australia
B. Diego Garcia
C. Cuba
D. Okinawa (Japan)
69. Identify the A, B, C and D

A. Bulgaria, Montenegro, Macedonia and Serbia
B. Serbia, Kosovo, Montenegro and Macedonia
C. Serbia, Kosovo, Macedonia and Montenegro
D. Bulgaria, Kosovo, Macedonia and Montenegro
70. Which is/are CORRECT matched?
1. Right to vote in elections – Not a Fundamental Right but it is a constitutional right
2. Right to property – Not a Fundamental Right but it is a constitutional right
3. Right to social security and insurance – Part of International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
4. Right to information – Right under the Fundamental Right to freedom of thought and expression
A. 1 & 2 Only
B. 2 & 3 Only
C. 3 & 4 Only
D. All the above
71. ‘A History of British India’ a book which divided Indian history into three periods – Hindu, Muslim and British, published in 1817 by
A. James Mill
B. Robert Caldwell
C. Edward Green Balfour
D. Sir Alexander Cunningham
72. Assertion (A): In 1600, the East India Company acquired a charter from the ruler of England, Queen Elizabeth I
Reason (R): The Company did not have to fear competition from other English trading companies with the charter
A. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
B. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
C. A is Correct; But not R
D. R is Correct; But not A
73. Consider the following statements about the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries AD 
Statement I: There were intense conflicts among Europeans
Statement II: European trading posts were fortified
Statement III: European trading companies were interested in buying the same things

  1. Statement I, Statement II and Statement III are not correct
  2. Statement I, Statement II and Statement III are correct and no relationship between them
  3. Statement I, Statement II and Statement III are correct and Statement III correct explanation for Statement I
  4. Statement II only correct and Statement I and Statement III are not correct
74. British had changed their policies as a result of the rebellion of 1857. Which is/are CORRECT?
  1. Policies were made to protect landlords and zamindars and give them security of rights over their lands
  2. All ruling chiefs of the country were assured that their territory would never be annexed in future
  3. The British decided to respect the customary religious and social practices of the people in India
  4. It was decided that the proportion of Indian soldiers in the army would be reduced and the number of European soldiers would be increased
A. 1 & 2 Only
B. 1, 2 & 3 Only
C. 2, 3 & 4 Only
D. All the above
75. Which of the following cities were de-urbanized during the nineteenth century?
A. Machlipatnam
B. Surat and Seringapatam
C. A& B
D. None of the above

Q76 to 100

76. Consider the following statements about the Indian Cities during Colonial rule
  1. Delhi developed only after 1911 when it became the capital of British India
  2. In Bombay and Calcutta, the living spaces of Indians and the British were sharply separated
  3. In Madras, especially in the first half of the nineteenth century, the British lived along with the wealthier Indians in the Walled City
Which is/are CORRECT?
A. 1 Only
B. 1 & 2 Only
C. 2 & 3 Only
D. All the above
77. A public meeting was held on 13 April 1919 at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar. This was for
  1. To protest the purchase of foreign articles
  2. To protest the arrests of Dr Satyapal and Dr Saifuddin Kitchlew
  3. To become self-governing within the British Empire
  4. To protest the use of foreigners as employees
78. Rosa Parks had contributed to
  1. Women’s and workers rights
  2. Marxist thoughts
  3. African-American Civil Rights
  4. Literature
79. What is particular to Indian Secularism?
  1. The most prevalent definition of secularism is not wholly applicable to Indian State
  2. State maintains a separation as well as intervenes in religion
  3. Any interference in religion by the State has to be based on the ideals laid out in the Constitution
  4. Avoidance of inter-religious domination and intra-religious domination are two main reasons why the separation between religion and state in India
A. 1 Only
B. 1 & 2 Only
C. 2 & 3 Only
D. All the above
80. Consider the following statements
  1. According to Article 22 of the Constitution, every person has a Fundamental Right to be defended by a lawyer
  2. Article 39A of the Constitution places a duty upon the State to provide a lawyer to any citizen who is unable to engage one due to poverty or other disability
Which is/are CORRECT?
A. 1 Only
B. 2 Only
C. 1 & 2
D. None of the above
81. D.K. Basu Guidelines of Supreme Court
  1. Sexual harassment at workplace
  2. In cases of encounter
  3. Procedures to follow for the arrest
  4. On school buses safety
82. Assertion (A): In 2003, Supreme Court observed that the number of manual scavengers in India had decreased
Reason (R): In 1993, the government passed the Employment of Manual Scavengers and Construction of Dry Latrines (Prohibition) Act
A. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
B. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
C. A is Correct; But not R
D. R is Correct; But not A
83: The supply of water per person in an urban area in India should be about
A. 135 litres per day
B. 700 litres per day
C. 600 litres per day
D. 40 litres per day
84. Nagercoil in Tamil Nadu is known for 
A. Solar Power
B. Windmills
C. Petroleum and Natural Gas
D. Coal
85. Match the following: (Region/Location – Soil Conservation)
a. Coastal and dry regions -1. Mulching
b. Hill slopes -2. Contour Ploughing
c. Steep slopes -3. Terrace farming
d. Bare ground – 4. Shelter belts
1 2 3 4
A c d b a
B c d a b
C d b c a
D d b a c
86. Match the following: (Region/Country – Minerals)
1. North Sweden a- Nickel
2. Ontario b– Iron-ore
3. South Africa c– Phosphate
4. Algeria d– Chromites
Answer choices
Opt. 1 2 3 4
A d b a c
B b a d c
C d b c a
D b a c d
87. Which is/are CORRECT?
  1. Brazil is the largest producer of high grade iron-ore in the world
  2. Western Cordilleras of North America have vast deposits of coal
  3. Nigeria, Libya and Angola produce a large portion of the world’s gold
  4. Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie areas of Western Australia have the largest deposits of bauxite
A. 1 Only
B. 2 & 3 Only
C. 3 & 4 Only
D. All the above
88. What the regions 1 and 2 denote

  1. Least Populated regions of USA and China
  2. Mediterranean Climate of USA and China
  3. Coniferous Forests of USA and China
  4. Arable Land of USA and China
89. Rivers mentioned as 1 and 2 are

  1. Subarnarekha and Kharkai respectively
  2. Kharkai and Subarnarekha respectively
  3. Subarnarekha and Damodar respectively
  4. Damodar and Subarnarekha respectively
90. Locational advantages of Silicon plateau – Bangalore
  1. Bangalore has the largest number of educational institutions and IT colleges
  2. The city was considered dust free with low rents and cost of living
  3. The state government of Karnataka was the first to announce an IT Policy in 1992
  4. The city has the largest and widest availability of skilled managers with work experience
Which are CORRECT?
A. 1, 2 & 4 Only
B. 2, 3 & 4 Only
C. 1, 3 & 4 Only
D. All the above
91. Assertion (A): Japan and Bangladesh have similarity in the shape of their population pyramids 
Reason (R): Japan and Bangladesh both are very densely populated countries of the world
  1. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
  2. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
  3. A is Correct; But not R
  4. R is Correct; But not A
92. Which is NOT true?
  1. World Water Day – 22 April
  2. International Decade for action on “Water for life” – 2005–2015
  3. Disinfectant for water – Chlorine and ozone
  4. Clarification – the removal of suspended matter in raw water
93. Concave mirrors are used for many purposes. Which are CORRECT?
  1. Doctors for examining eyes, ears, nose and throat
  2. Side view mirror to help the drivers
  3. Reflectors of torches and headlights of cars and scooters
A. 1 Only
B. 1 & 3 Only
C. 2 & 3 Only
D. All the above
94. Assertion (A): In India there has been more than four times increase in the production of food grains
Reason (R): In India increase in production has been achieved by proportionate increase in the cultivable land area
  1. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
  2. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
  3. A is Correct; But not R
  4. R is Correct; But not A
95. Plants require nutrients for growth. Consider the following statements
  1. Nutrients are supplied to plants solely by water and soil
  2. There are sixteen nutrients which are essential for plants
  3. Oxygen and hydrogen comes from water, and soil supplies the rest of the nutrients to plants
  4. Iron is one of the important macronutrients to plants
Which is/are TRUE?
A. 1, 3 & 4 Only
B. 2 Only
C. 4 Only
D. 1, 2 & 3
96. Consider the following statements
  1. Green manure helps in enriching the soil in Nitrogen and Phosphorus
  2. Organic farming is a farming system which involves mixed cropping and crop rotation
  3. Inter-cropping ensures maximum utilisation of the nutrients supplied and also prevents pests and diseases from spreading
  4. Avoidance of summer ploughing is recommended for weed and pests control
Which is/are INCORRECT?
A. 1, 2 & 3 Only
B. 1 Only
C. 4 Only
D. 2, 3 & 4 Only
97. Consider the following statements
  1. Other than a few forms of bacteria, life-forms are not able to convert the comparatively inert nitrogen molecule into forms like nitrates and nitrites
  2. A different type of bacteria converts the nitrates and nitrites in the soil into elemental nitrogen and this process is called ‘nitrogen-fixing’
Which is/are CORRECT?
A. 1 Only
B. 2 Only
C. 1 & 2
D. None of the above
98. Consider the following statements about Ozone
  1. Found in the upper reaches of the atmosphere
  2. It is poisonous
  3. It is stable nearer to the earth’s surface
  4. Reduction of the ozone layer have discovered above the Antarctica
Which is/are INCORRECT?
A. 1 & 4 Only
B. 2 Only
C. 3 Only
D. None of the above
99. The energy used during a month in households, industries and commercial establishments are usually expressed in terms of ‘units’. 1 ‘unit’ means
A. 1 kilowatt hour
B. 10 kilowatt hour
C. 100 kilowatt hour
D. 1000 kilowatt hour
100. Consider the following
  1. Aristotle classified animals according to whether they lived on land, in water or in the air
  2. Charles Darwin first described this idea of evolution in 1859 in his book The Origin of Species
  3. Living organisms Classification – hierarchy: Kingdom – Phylum (for animals) / Division (for plants) – Class – Order – Family – Genus – Species
  4. All living organisms are divided into four kingdoms namely Monera, Protista, Plantae and Animalia
Which is/are INCORRECT?
A. 1 & 3 Only
B. 2 Only
C. 4 Only
D. None of the above

Answerkey

Source : Mrunal
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